Reference assignment and R-based narrowing: simple as that?

From: J L Speranza (jls@netverk.com.ar)
Date: Wed Nov 27 2002 - 23:28:50 GMT

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    In 'Toward a new taxonomy for pragmatic inference' (now repr. in A. Kasher,
    _Implicature_, Routledge, Pragmatics Critical Concepts) L. R. Horn refers
    to "R-based" narrowings and strenghtenings -- with "R" standing for Grice's
    'Relation', i.e. 'be relevant'. Horn is there especially interested in
    _diachronic_ illustrations, and writes:

     "Narrowing generally involves an R-based shift
     from a set denotation to a subset (or member)
     of that set, representing the salient or
     stereotypicapl exemplar of the general
     category. [...] The shift [may] become virtually
     complete (although the original, broader
     extension may persisit in marginal uses)."
     (op. cit., p. 32).

    A special type of narrowing is of the 'phoric' (e.g. 'anaphoric',
    'autophoric', or more general 'reference-assignment') kind, and Levinson
    discusses these cases at large in his _Presumptive Meanings_. It all
    relates, I was meditating, to what

    http://www.eurofinder.at/weblog/swear.html
    "The Fat, Drunken Englishman's Guide to Swear Words"

    refers to as 'the biggie':

      motherf*cker: The biggie. The Oedipal
      double. The original twelve-letter word.
      Listen to some rap music, watch American
      action films. Say this word all the time and
      pretend you're Ice Cube/Bruce Willis.

    It always struck me that "the fat, drunken Englishman" would take it as so
    monotonically for granted that 'motherf*cker' +> 'copulator of _one's own_
    mother'. It may be a sad reflection of current affairs that it's again a
    Brit(ish person) who has to illustrate us on this quintessential
    Americanism. Thus I read from

    http://www.bbc.co.uk/dna/h2g2/alabaster/A753527
    "The origins & common usage of British swear-words"

      "A phrase that, until recently, was almost
      exclusively American, is 'mother-f****r'.
      Despite sounding very Oedipal, this does not
      have Freudian derivations. The word was apparently
      coined by African slaves to describe the slave
      owners who had raped the slave's [sic] mothers.
      Simple as that."

    But -- is _it_ 'simple as that'? Can an entrenched, however defeasible,
    R-based phoric implicature be erased from the "mind" of the utterers (if
    only our 'fat drunken Englishman') like _that_.

    Cheers,

    JL

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