Re: Question

From: J L Speranza (jls@netverk.com.ar)
Date: Sun Oct 13 2002 - 07:13:36 GMT

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    L. C. Reyes refers a discussant of his who

    >presented [the] English example [of]
    >"can't."

    The discussant had

    >[stated] that this "has [in it] implicit [...]
    >the missing 'n' and 'o'. I pointed out that these
    >phonemes in this instance do not convey
    >implicit information, as morphemes would [...]

    An unhappy example 'can't' is, perhaps? I say this on two counts: one
    orthographic, one semantico-cum-pragmatic:

    * L. Carroll (orthographic)
    L. Carroll used to (famously) say that the strict (correct) abbreviation of
    'can not' should be 'ca'n't' -- and I agree! (See e.g.
    http://www.hoboes.com/html/FireBlade/Carroll/Sylvie/Concluded/preface.html
    "[C]ritics have objected to certain innovations
    in spelling, such as "ca'n't" [...]. In reply, I
    can only plead my firm conviction that the popular
    usage is wrong. [... I]t will not be disputed that,
    in all other words ending in "n’t", these letters
    are an abbreviation of "not"; and it is surely absurd
    to suppose that, in this solitary instance, "not" is
    represented by "'t"!")

    * A. Zwicky (semantico-cum-pragmatic)
      "can't" vs. "cannot" vs. "can not"
    A. Zwicky has (famously) said that 'can't' does not equal (at least
    non-truth-conditionally) 'can not' (if 'cannot'). '-n't' is, on this
    implicature-based view, more of 'inflexion' (if not a tense/aspect) proper
    than a simple 'abbreviation'. It is e.g. argued that the 'inflected'
    negative "[He] can't [go]" -- or the orthographic lexicalisation "[He]
    cannot [go]" -- only allows wide scope (E vertex) negation, while the
    unlexicalised counterpart "[He] can not [go]" is [at least] ambiguous on
    this respect.

    I'm not sure I understand the concept of an 'elliptical morpheme'.

    For what it's worth, the phonemic string /kant/ -- let's forget graphemics
    -- can, in the Gricean parlance of WOW (p.128) constitute a vehicle for
    "applied timeless meaning for unstructured utterance-types", as the three
    examples below testify:

        A: i. Name the philosopher who wrote
              the Critique of Pure Reason.
           ii. How would you describe his style?
               ("cant")
           iii. Won't you or can't you?
        B: /kant/

    But then I'm not sure I understand the notion of 'implicit information' you
    mention, either. (But then I'm not feeling particularly perspicacious today).

    Cheers,

    JL

    L. C. Reyes writes:
    >I have been discussing the issue of implicit information
    >with a person who holds the code model of communication
    >as the sole reliable source for utterance interpretation.
    >I pointed out to him some problems with this model when
    >it involves implicit information. The issue is whether
    >an isolated linguistic item (such as an inflected word)
    >that is extracted from a context can on its own convey
    >implicit information (i.e., the word on its own
    >in a total vacuum). This person presented the example
    >of "can't." He states that "can't" "has implicit
    >in it the missing 'n' and 'o' to make the
    >expression "cannot." I pointed out that the phonemes
    >in this instance do not convey implicit information,
    >as morphemes would. While many linguists differ
    >on the exact definition of "morpheme", they
    >generally agree on it being the minimal unit of
    >speech conveying a "meaning". My question: is there
    >such thing as an _elliptical_ morpheme? If there is,
    >then it would seem that this person can form an argument
    >that implicit information (however restricted) can be
    >recovered from purely linguistic decoding. I consider
    >any example of an elliptical prefix, infix, or suffix
    >or a word whether a contraction or an inflection.
    ==
                            J L Speranza, Esq
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